AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 18
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 24
- 5 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
1. Section 2: Definitions
Which term is defined in Section 2(1)(j) of the Patents Act, 1970?
A. Patent
B. Invention
C. Controller
D. Application
2. Section 3: Non-Patentable Inventions
Which category is NOT patentable under Section 3(d)?
A. New drugs
B. Mere discovery of known substance
C. Improved mechanical device
D. Novel chemical compound
3. Rule 4: Appropriate Office
The appropriate Patent Office is determined by:
A. Where the patent application is filed
B. Applicant’s place of business or domicile
C. Location of invention’s use
D. Jurisdiction of Controller
4. Manual: Unity of Invention
Unity of invention implies:
A. Multiple inventions in one application
B. A single general inventive concept
C. Multiple unrelated claims
D. Combination product and process claims
5. Section 6: Persons Entitled to Apply
A patent application may be filed by:
A. Any citizen
B. The inventor, assignee, or legal representative
C. Only companies
D. Only government agencies
6. Rule 20: Divisional Application
A divisional patent application is filed when:
A. Specification is complete
B. Multiple inventions are disclosed in one application
C. Patent is granted
D. Application is withdrawn
7. Section 10: Contents of Specification
Which is mandatory in a complete specification?
A. Drawings
B. Claims
C. Sequence listing
D. Declarations
8. Rule 24B: Request for Examination
Time for filing Request for Examination (RFE) for an ordinary application is:
A. 12 months from filing
B. 48 months from priority date
C. 24 months from publication
D. 6 months from grant
9. Manual: Industrial Applicability
Industrial applicability means:
A. Can be made in bulk
B. Capable of being made or used in industry
C. Useful for home users
D. Only applicable to machinery
10. Section 11A: Publication of Application
Patent applications are published after how long from filing date?
A. 6 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months
D. 12 months
Medium Questions
11. Rule 13: Forms and Fees
Form 1 is required for:
A. Patent of Addition
B. Ordinary Patent Application
C. Amendment Application
D. Withdrawal Request
12. Section 8: Information to Controller
Applicants must provide information regarding:
A. Inventor’s biography
B. Foreign applications for same invention
C. Patent agent details
D. Opponent’s address
13. Manual: Sufficiency of Disclosure
A specification is considered sufficient if it:
A. Is lengthy
B. Enables a person skilled in the art to carry out the invention
C. Contains all necessary forms
D. Has many drawings
14. Rule 25: Withdrawal of Application
Application can be withdrawn:
A. After grant
B. Any time before grant
C. Only before publication
D. Only after examination
15. Section 21: Acceptance of Complete Specification
Acceptance results in:
A. Patent grant
B. Publication and grant consideration
C. Immediate patent issuance
D. Specification amendment
16. Rule 27: Amendments of Application
Amendments to a patent application must be:
A. Approved by Controller
B. Submitted with Form 4
C. Verified by agent
D. Published directly
17. Manual: Patentable Subject Matter (Process vs. Product)
A process patent protects:
A. A physical product
B. A method of making/using a product
C. Utility of a product
D. Appearance of a product
18. Rule 55: Opposition Proceedings
Pre-grant opposition can be filed:
A. After patent is granted
B. Before grant of patent
C. Only before publication
D. Only by government
19. Section 39: Restriction on Foreign Filing
Prior permission is needed to file patent outside India when:
A. Inventor is foreign national
B. Applicant is Indian resident/inventor
C. Patent agent is abroad
D. Patent filed in PCT
20. Manual: Claim Construction
Claims should be:
A. Ambiguous
B. Clear and supported by description
C. Single sentence
D. Overly broad
Difficult Questions
21. Section 3(k): Computer Programs per se
Patentability of computer programs in India:
A. Always allowed
B. Allowed as standalone programs
C. Excluded unless technical effect is demonstrated
D. Only permitted for business methods
22. Rule 24C: Expedited Examination
Eligibility for expedited examination is granted to:
A. Any applicant
B. Startups or applicants choosing international application route
C. Only foreign applicants
D. Only for divisional applications
23. Section 54: Patent of Addition
A patent of addition relates to:
A. A new main invention
B. An improvement/modification of existing patented invention
C. A divisional application
D. An ordinary patent application
24. Rule 29: Amendment of Specification
A specification may be amended post-grant via:
A. Voluntary amendment
B. Application approved by Controller
C. Automatic amendment
D. Filing new specification
25. Manual: Inventive Step Assessment
Inventive step requires:
A. Lack of novelty
B. Obviousness to a skilled person
C. Technical advancement or economic significance that is non-obvious
D. Inclusion in prior art
26. Section 146: Information on Working of Patents
Annual statements of working are required under:
A. Section 8
B. Section 146
C. Section 39
D. Section 3
27. Rule 80: Correction of Clerical Errors
Correction of clerical errors in patent documents:
A. Is not permitted
B. Requires formal application and Controller’s approval
C. Automatic upon publication
D. Only during examination
28. Manual: Patent Term Extension
Term extension for patents is allowed for:
A. None; patent term is strictly 20 yrs
B. Special drugs
C. Divisional applications
D. By court order
29. Section 64: Revocation of Patent
Which ground is NOT valid for patent revocation?
A. Wrongful obtainment
B. Lack of novelty
C. Failure to pay renewal fees
D. Non-disclosure of foreign filings
30. Rule 115: Appeals to the Appellate Board
Appeals against Controller’s decisions are made to:
A. District Court
B. High Court
C. Intellectual Property Appellate Board
D. Supreme Court
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