AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 8
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 14
- 5 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
Section 2: Definitions
1. Which section of the Patents Act, 1970 defines 'invention'?
A) Section 2(1)(m)
B) Section 2(1)(j)
C) Section 3
D) Section 11A
Section 6: Who can apply for patent
2. Who is eligible to file a patent application in India?
A) Only individuals
B) Only companies
C) True and first inventor or their assignee
D) Only government bodies
Section 3: Non-patentable inventions
3. Which type of invention is NOT patentable under Section 3?
A) Process for purifying water
B) Mere discovery of a scientific principle
C) Composition of a new alloy
D) A new pharmaceutical formulation
Rule 12: Correspondence address
4. What is required under Rule 12 for all patent communications?
A) Proof of invention
B) Address for service in India
C) Office registration number
D) Patent agent's identity
Section 8: Information and undertaking
5. What does Section 8 require patent applicants to submit?
A) Disclosure of all corresponding foreign applications
B) Number of inventors
C) Details of laboratory used
D) Fees paid to the controller
Section 25: Opposition to grant
6. Which section deals with opposition to patent grant?
A) Section 21
B) Section 25
C) Section 2
D) Section 92
Section 11A: Publication of application
7. After how many months is a patent application published in India?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18 months
D) 36 months
Rule 13: Specification form
8. Which form is used to file a provisional or complete specification?
A) Form 1
B) Form 2
C) Form 3
D) Form 4
Section 54: Patents of addition
9. What does a patent of addition relate to?
A) Skill-training
B) Further improvement or modification of an existing invention
C) New product introduction
D) Fast-track patent process
Patent Office Manual: Patentable subject matter
10. Which guideline helps determine patentable subject matter?
A) Trademark Rules
B) Patent Office Manual
C) Geographic Indications Act
D) Customs Act
Medium Level (Questions 11–20)
Section 10: Contents of specifications
11. What must a complete specification contain under Section 10?
A) Title only
B) Description, claims, drawings (if necessary), and abstract
C) Abstract only
D) Claims only
Section 13: Search and examination
12. What is the purpose of examination under Section 13?
A) To issue certificate of innovation
B) To check patentability and prior art
C) To determine patent fees
D) To grant copyright
Rule 24B: Time limit for request for examination
13. Within how many months must an examination request be made in India?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18 months
D) 48 months
Section 16: Divisional applications
14. What is a divisional application under Section 16?
A) An application for division patent rights
B) An application split from a main application showing separate inventions
C) An application by a partnership
D) Application for a design patent
Rule 55: Pre-grant opposition procedure
15. Who can file pre-grant opposition under Rule 55?
A) The applicant
B) Any person
C) Only government body
D) Only patent agent
Section 142: Controller’s power to correct errors
16. What does Section 142 empower the controller to do?
A) Conduct technical interviews
B) Correct clerical errors
C) Grant CRIs
D) Penalize applicants
Patent Office Manual: Unity of invention guideline
17. What is 'unity of invention'?
A) One patent for multiple inventors
B) Single general inventive concept per application
C) Unity certificate from government
D) Unified international patent
Section 51: Term of patent
18. What is the term of a patent in India as per Section 53?
A) 10 years
B) 20 years
C) 25 years
D) 30 years
Rule 133: Power of Controller to extend time
19. Under Rule 133, the Controller may extend time, except for which actions?
A) Fees payment
B) Filing appeal
C) Submitting specification
D) Actions under Rule 24B
Section 117A: Appeal to Appellate Board
20. What does Section 117A deal with?
A) Oppositions
B) Appeals to the Appellate Board against Controller’s decisions
C) Patent renewal
D) Patent of addition
Difficult Level (Questions 21–30)
Section 104A: Burden of proof in infringement
21. In an infringement action involving a process patent, who has the burden of proof as per Section 104A?
A) Plaintiff
B) Defendant
C) Government
D) Both parties equally
Section 92A: Compulsory license for export
22. Section 92A provides for compulsory licensing for export of patented products. Which condition must be met?
A) Product must be new
B) Export must be for pharmaceutical products to countries lacking manufacturing capacity
C) Only to developed countries
D) Export must be for educational purposes
Rule 27: Sequence listing requirements
23. When are sequence listings required in a patent application?
A) When an electrical circuit is discussed
B) For inventions involving nucleic acids or amino acids
C) When a chemical process is described
D) For mechanical inventions
Section 78: Restoration of lapsed patents
24. What is the time limit for applying for restoration of a lapsed patent?
A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 18 months
D) 2 years
Rule 108: Qualification of patent agents
25. What is a key qualification for a patent agent under Rule 108?
A) Doctorate degree
B) Technical degree and passing patent agent exam
C) Age above 60
D) Registered government scientist
Patent Office Manual: Non-patentable subject matter
26. Which example is cited as non-patentable in the Manual?
A) Software per se
B) Engine modification
C) Pharmaceutical composition
D) Biotechnological process
Section 39: Secrecy provisions
27. Who must receive permission to file patent applications abroad under Section 39?
A) Any Indian resident
B) Foreign national
C) Registered IP firm only
D) Only inventors in Hyderabad
Rule 138: Correction of irregularities
28. The Controller may condone irregularities in procedure under Rule 138, except when?
A) Delay in payment
B) Lapse in filing examination request
C) Mistake in inventor’s name
D) Non-payment of renewal fee
Section 107A: Bolar exemption
29. What does Section 107A (Bolar provision) allow?
A) Export of medicines without restrictions
B) Import of patented medicines
C) Use of patented inventions for regulatory approvals and research
D) Sale of patented products without license
Manual: Inventive step assessment
30. Which principle is applied for assessing inventive step as per guidelines?
A) Routine combination
B) Obviousness to a person skilled in the art
C) Maximum novelty
D) Minimum technical effect
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