AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 12
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 18
- 4 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
Section 2: Definitions
1. Which term in the Patents Act, 1970 refers to “exclusive rights granted for an invention”?
A) Copyright
B) Trademark
C) Patent
D) Trade Secret
Section 3: Non-patentable Inventions
2. Which of the following CANNOT be patented in India?
A) Mechanical devices
B) Computer programs per se
C) Pharmaceutical formulations
D) Electronic gadgets
Rule 1: Short Title and Commencement
3. The Patents Rules, 2003 came into effect in which year?
A) 2000
B) 2002
C) 2003
D) 2005
Section 6: Entitlement to Apply
4. Who can apply for a patent in India?
A) Only companies
B) Only residents
C) Any person or assignee
D) Only foreigners
Rule 13: Specifications
5. Drawings in a specification should be supplied according to which rule?
A) Rule 10
B) Rule 15
C) Rule 13
D) Rule 17
Section 9: Specifications
6. A provisional specification must be followed by which of the following?
A) Trademark filing
B) Final specification
C) Complete specification
D) Design registration
Section 7: Form of Application
7. Patent applications must be filed in which prescribed form?
A) Form 1
B) Form 2
C) Form 5
D) Form 7
Patents Manual: Novelty
8. Which quality must every patentable invention possess?
A) Commercialization
B) Novelty
C) Trademark status
D) Registered office
Section 43: Grant of Patents
9. Who grants the patent in India?
A) Judiciary
B) Controller
C) Inventor
D) Government Minister
Section 45: Date of Patent
10. The date of a patent is considered from the date of:
A) Examination
B) Filing the application
C) Publication
D) Acceptance
Medium Questions (11–20)
Rule 10: Preliminary Examination
11. Preliminary examination of a patent application is carried out to check:
A) Inventive step
B) Formal requirements
C) Marketability
D) Industrial applicability
Section 8: Information about Foreign Applications
12. The applicant must provide information about:
A) Previous publication
B) Foreign patent filings
C) Inventor’s address
D) Market use
Rule 20: Divisional Applications
13. Divisional applications must refer to:
A) Priority date
B) Main application number
C) Grant of patent
D) Controller’s report
Section 25: Opposition to Grant
14. Pre-grant opposition can be filed by:
A) Only the inventor
B) Any person
C) Only a company
D) Controller
Rule 24B: Request for Examination
15. By when must the request for examination be filed?
A) Within 6 months
B) Within 12 months
C) Within 48 months from filing date
D) Before publication
Section 39: Permission to File Abroad
16. Residents must obtain permission to file patent applications abroad.
A) True
B) False
C) Not specified
D) Optional
Rule 26: Amendment of Application
17. Amendment of application documents is permissible:
A) After grant only
B) Before grant only
C) Both before and after grant
D) Never
Manual: Inventive Step
18. Inventive step is assessed by comparing with:
A) General knowledge
B) Prior art
C) Market potential
D) Patent fees
Section 53: Term of Patent
19. Validity period of a patent in India is:
A) 10 years
B) 15 years
C) 20 years
D) Lifetime
Rule 14: Power of Controller
20. The Controller may require amendment of applications if:
A) Claims lack novelty
B) There is ambiguity in specification
C) Fees unpaid
D) Publication delayed
Difficult Questions (21–30)
Section 48: Rights of Patentees
21. Which right is NOT conferred by a patent under Section 48?
A) To prevent third parties from making
B) To prevent third parties from selling
C) To prevent third parties from using
D) To prevent third parties from researching the invention
Section 64: Revocation of Patent
22. A patent may be revoked on grounds of:
A) Lack of novelty
B) High fees
C) Controller’s wish
D) Inventor’s change of address
Rule 74: Patent Office Branches
23. Branches of the Patent office can be established by:
A) Judiciary
B) Controller
C) Central Government
D) Patent Agents
Manual: Industrial Applicability
24. Industrial applicability means the invention must:
A) Be new
B) Have legal protection
C) Be capable of being made/used in industry
D) Be published in journals
Section 107A: Bolar Provision
25. Section 107A allows:
A) Patents to be revoked
B) Use of patented products for research and regulatory approval purpose
C) Unlimited commercialization
D) Fee reduction
Rule 130: Restoration of Lapsed Patents
26. A lapsed patent can be restored within:
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18 months
D) 24 months
Section 83: Principles for Working of Patented Inventions
27. Indians are encouraged to manufacture patented articles domestically because:
A) It increases revenue
B) It benefits the public
C) It protects inventors
D) It’s required by foreign law
Manual: Unity of Invention Principle
28. A patent application must relate to:
A) Several inventions
B) Any number of claims
C) A single invention or group of linked inventions
D) Different applicants
Rule 134: Fees Unpaid
29. If patent maintenance fees are not paid, the patent will:
A) Continue
B) Be suspended
C) Lapse
D) Be transferred
Section 100: Use by Central Government
30. The Central Government can use a patent for:
A) Any business
B) Public purposes
C) Foreign export
D) Education only
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