AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 10
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 16
- 5 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
Section 2: Definitions
1. What does "Controller" mean under the Patents Act, 1970?
A) Head of R&D
B) Examiner
C) The person appointed under Section 73
D) Patent applicant
Section 3: Non-Patentable Inventions
2. Which of the following is NOT patentable under Section 3?
A) New chemical process
B) Discovery of a scientific principle
C) Invention of new machinery
D) Pharmaceutical composition
Section 6: Persons Entitled to Apply
3. A patent application may be filed by:
A) Any person
B) The inventor or their legal representative
C) Only a government official
D) Only a foreign citizen
Rule 7: Fees
4. Patent office fees are payable in:
A) Foreign currency
B) Cryptocurrency
C) Indian Rupees
D) Gold
Section 10: Specifications
5. Which specification details must be included in a complete application?
A) Abstract only
B) Description, claims, drawings, abstract
C) Claims only
D) Title only
Rule 8: Forms
6. Forms prescribed under the Patents Rules must be:
A) Custom designed
B) As provided in the Second Schedule
C) Handwritten
D) Optional
Section 21: Time for putting application in order
7. What is the maximum time for putting a patent application in order for grant?
A) 1 month
B) 6 months
C) 12 months
D) 5 years
Rule 3: Prescribed particulars
8. What does Rule 3 specify?
A) Patent fees
B) Prescribed particulars for application
C) Grant timelines
D) Renewal rules
Section 13: Anticipation by publication
9. Controller checks for anticipation in patent applications by:
A) Random selection
B) Publication search
C) Inventor interview
D) Drawing review
Rule 10: Proof of right
10. When must proof of right under Section 7(2) be furnished?
A) Before filing
B) Within the prescribed period after filing
C) After grant
D) Before examination
Medium (10 Questions)
Section 9: Provisional and Complete Specifications
11. What is the main difference between provisional and complete specification?
A) Provisional includes claims
B) Complete contains claims and detailed description
C) Both are identical
D) Complete is shorter
Section 29: Anticipation by oral disclosure
12. Which is TRUE regarding anticipation by oral disclosure?
A) Only written disclosures apply
B) Oral disclosures can lead to anticipation and refusal
C) Oral disclosures have no effect
D) Only foreign disclosures matter
Rule 13: Specifications
13. Under Rule 13, what format must specifications generally follow?
A) Only English
B) Either English or Hindi
C) Only Hindi
D) Any Indian language
Section 24B: Examination of application
14. Expedited examination under Rule 24C is allowed for which applicants?
A) Any applicant
B) Only startup or SME applicants
C) Only foreign applicants
D) Only universities
Section 35: Secrecy directions
15. Under Section 35, when can directions for secrecy be issued?
A) Always
B) If invention is relevant to defense/national security
C) Only for pharmaceuticals
D) For novelty assessment
Rule 20: International applications designating India
16. For an international application, the applicant must file:
A) Local application only
B) Priority document with Indian Patent Office
C) No document
D) Patent in every country
Section 54: Patents of Addition
17. Patents of addition are granted for:
A) New independent inventions
B) Improvements or modifications to patented inventions
C) Pharmaceuticals
D) Plant varieties
Rule 27: Inspection of Published Documents
18. Who may inspect published patent documents?
A) Only inventor
B) The general public
C) Only examiners
D) Only legal representatives
Section 70: Mention of inventor
19. The inventor’s name is officially mentioned:
A) On grant certificate
B) In the patent register
C) Not mentioned
D) Only in news
Rule 80: Renewal fees
20. Patent renewal fees are payable:
A) Once at grant
B) Annually post grant
C) Only at expiry
D) Only for pharmaceutical patents
Difficult (10 Questions)
Section 24: Omitted sections
21. Which section related to publication and examination has been omitted from the Patents Act?
A) Section 22
B) Section 13
C) Section 15
D) Section 19
Rule 63: Determination of Costs
22. The Patent Office determines costs in opposition proceedings under:
A) Rule 55
B) Rule 58
C) Rule 63
D) Rule 70
Section 51: Powers to revoke and amend patents
23. Who may apply for directions under Section 51(1)?
A) Anyone
B) Government only
C) Person interested
D) Only Controller
Rule 74A: Inspection of Grant Documents
24. Documents related to the grant may be inspected by:
A) Only applicant
B) Any interested party
C) Only patent agents
D) Only examiners
Section 64: Revocation of patent
25. A patent can be revoked on grounds including:
A) Non payment of fees
B) Lack of inventive step or prior publication
C) Failure of commercialization
D) Change in inventor’s address
Rule 96: Compulsory Licensing
26. Applications for compulsory licenses are made under:
A) Rule 80
B) Rule 96
C) Rule 7
D) Rule 67
Section 104: Scientific Advisers
27. Who maintains the roll of scientific advisers?
A) Court
B) Patent Office Controller
C) Attorney General
D) Inventor
Rule 110: Patent Agent Exam particulars
28. To register as a patent agent, the qualifying exam particulars are governed by:
A) Rule 108
B) Rule 110
C) Rule 111A
D) Rule 121
Section 135: Powers of Controller
29. What powers does the Controller have under Section 135?
A) Power to prosecute
B) Power to enter premises and inspect documents
C) Power to act as inventor
D) Power to issue patents directly
Rule 121A: Address of Communications
30. According to Rule 121A, official communications should be sent to:
A) Corporation only
B) Patent agent or applicant at official address
C) Any address provided
D) Controller’s office only
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