AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 9
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 15
- 5 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
1. What is the short title of the Act discussed in Chapter I?
A. Patent Law Act
B. Intellectual Property Act
C. The Patents Act, 1970
D. Designs Act, 2000
2. Which section defines the extent and commencement of the Act?
A. Section 2
B. Section 1
C. Section 5
D. Section 10
3. Which government body enforces the Patents Act, 1970?
A. Supreme Court
B. Patent Office of India
C. Reserve Bank of India
D. Ministry of Commerce only
4. What is defined in Section 2 of the Patents Act?
A. Patentable inventions
B. Definitions and interpretation
C. Patent agents
D. Trademark registration
5. According to Rule 1 of the Patents Rules, what is the short title of the rules?
A. Patents Application Rules
B. The Patents Rules, 2003
C. Intellectual Property Rules
D. Trademark Rules
6. When did the Patents Rules, 2003 come into force?
A. January 1, 1970
B. On date of notification of Patents (Amendment) Act, 2002
C. December 31, 1999
D. March 15, 2003
7. What does "article" include as per Patents Rules, 2003?
A. Only documents
B. Any substance or material, plant, machinery or apparatus
C. Only machinery
D. Only patents
8. In the context of the Act, what does ‘Controller’ mean?
A. The Judge
B. The Head of the Patent Office
C. The Minister
D. A patent agent
9. Which rule defines the particulars to be prescribed in the forms for the Act?
A. Rule 4
B. Rule 3
C. Rule 2
D. Rule 1
10. Which office must applications be submitted to as per Rule 4?
A. Central Secretariat
B. Appropriate office of Patent Office
C. Supreme Court
D. Local police station
Medium Questions
11. Which Section describes the meaning of ‘invention’ under the Act?
A. Section 1
B. Section 3
C. Section 2
D. Section 5
12. What are the three main criteria for patentability described in Section 2(1)(j)?
A. Cost, originality, and marketability
B. Novelty, inventive step, industrial application
C. Industrial application, patent fees, plant variety
D. Inventive step, specification, and agent
13. What does ‘inventive step’ mean in Section 2(1)(ja)?
A. Any technical knowledge
B. Economic significance or technical advancement
C. Simple change
D. Minor variation
14. What is the significance of ‘Definitions and Interpretation’ in Section 2?
A. It limits the Act to specific industries
B. It clarifies terminology for legal interpretation
C. It gives examples
D. It sets patent fees
15. Which Patents Rule supplements the regulations under PCT in Chapter I?
A. Rule 1
B. Rule 2
C. Rule 4
D. None
16. Define 'new invention' as per Section 2(1)(l) of the Patents Act, 1970.
A. Any product never sold
B. Any invention not anticipated by publication or use anywhere before the application
C. Any subject matter irrespective of public domain
D. Any invention used only in India
17. What is the role of the ‘appropriate office’ under Rule 4?
A. To issue patents only to foreign nationals
B. To serve as the receiving office for all proceedings under the Act
C. To provide legal advice
D. To deal with trademark disputes
18. What is specified under Rule 2 of Patents Rules, 2003 about the definition of terms?
A. All terms are defined in the Rules
B. Definitions are as per the Act if not specified in Rules
C. All terms relate to copyright
D. All terms refer to patent agents
19. Which section in the Act refers to the commencement of the Act?
A. Section 1
B. Section 2
C. Section 3
D. Section 5
20. According to Rule 4, which territorial criteria is relevant for office selection?
A. Place of birth of applicant
B. Where invention originated or applicant's residence/business
C. Controller’s convenience
D. Nearest bank
Difficult Questions
21. Section 2(1)(ja) refers to ‘inventive step’. For an invention to be patentable, how should inventive step be assessed?
A. Based only on commercial viability
B. Through established technical advancement and/or economic significance, and not obvious to a skilled person
C. Based on popularity
D. Using international patentability only
22. How does the Act define "capable of industrial application"?
A. Must be usable in a laboratory
B. Can be made or used in industry
C. Only relevant to pharmaceuticals
D. Only if exported
23. How are words and expressions not defined in Patents Rules, 2003 to be interpreted?
A. According to the Oxford Dictionary
B. As per definitions in the Act
C. Through judicial precedent
D. By local customs
24. Why is the definition section crucial for implementing the Act?
A. To update the Act periodically
B. To ensure clarity and prevent misinterpretation in legal proceedings
C. To favor specific industries
D. To allow more patents
25. In which cases might the “appropriate office” be outside the applicant’s domicile?
A. Never
B. If applicant has no domicile or business in India
C. Only for pharmaceutical patents
D. Always for multinationals
26. Which Patents Rule stipulates requirements for prescribed particulars in forms?
A. Rule 1
B. Rule 2
C. Rule 3
D. Rule 4
27. What is the relationship between the Patents Act, 1970 and Patents Rules, 2003?
A. The Rules override the Act
B. The Rules supplement procedures and details prescribed by the Act
C. The Act is for trademarks, Rules are for patents
D. No relationship
28. Is it mandatory for all proceedings under the Act to occur in the head office of the Patent Office?
A. Yes
B. No, it can be a branch office as per territorial limits
C. Only for foreign applicants
D. Only for pharmaceutical applications
29. Which document determines prescribed particulars required under the Act?
A. First Schedule
B. Prescribed Form under Rules
C. Controller’s Notes
D. Local Gazette
30. How are definitions and interpretations relevant to patent prosecution and litigation?
A. They do not matter
B. They govern the scope of eligibility for patents and assist courts/controllers in interpreting terms
C. Only relevant for patent agents
D. Only important for industries
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