AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 13
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 19
- 4 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
1. Section 2: Definitions — What is a “patent” under the Patents Act, 1970?
A) Exclusive right to manufacture only
B) Right to use and sell the invention
C) Grant of exclusive rights for an invention
D) Free use of the invention by all
2. Section 3: Non-patentable inventions — Which is NOT patentable under Section 3?
A) New chemical process
B) Mere discovery of a scientific principle
C) New pharmaceutical compound
D) Novel industrial machinery
3. Section 6: Who can apply for a patent?
A) Only Indian citizens
B) Anyone, including assignees and legal representatives
C) Only companies
D) Only inventors
4. Section 11A: Publication of applications — When is a patent application published?
A) Immediately upon filing
B) After 12 months
C) After 18 months from filing date
D) Never published
5. Rule 10: Address for Service — What must every applicant provide?
A) Only phone number
B) Address for service in India
C) Bank details
D) Email only
6. Section 8: Information and undertaking regarding foreign applications — What must the applicant provide?
A) Salary details
B) Bibliographic details of corresponding foreign applications
C) No document
D) Income proof
7. Rule 24B: Time for Examination request — By when must request for examination be filed?
A) Within 24 months
B) Within 48 months from priority date
C) 60 days
D) 2 years
8. Section 10: Specification — What must a complete specification contain?
A) Business description
B) Claims defining invention
C) Marketing plan
D) Financial projections
9. Section 13: Search for anticipation — Who conducts the search?
A) Patent applicant
B) Controller
C) Opponent
D) Police
10. Manual of Patent Office Practice: What is the purpose of the patent manual?
A) Entertainment
B) Procedural guidance for examiners
C) List of inventions
D) Fee calculation
Medium (Q11–Q20)
11. Section 25: Opposition to grant — When can pre-grant opposition be filed?
A) After patent is granted
B) At any time before grant
C) Only after expiry
D) Only by government
12. Rule 13: Drawings in a specification must be—
A) On blue paper
B) On A4 sheet with no margins
C) On white A4 paper, clear and legible
D) In color only
13. Section 16: Divisional application — When can it be filed?
A) Only at grant
B) At any time before grant in case of more than one invention in application
C) After 10 years
D) After opposition
14. Rule 20: International application for patent — Under PCT, which form is used?
A) Form 1
B) Form 2
C) Form 1A
D) Form 1(PCT)
15. Section 54: Patent of Addition — What does it cover?
A) Completely new invention
B) Improvement/modification of earlier invention
C) Plant varieties
D) Software only
16. Section 64: Grounds for revocation — Which is a ground?
A) Only if fee is unpaid
B) Commercial non-use
C) Non-patentability, lack of novelty, wrong person
D) All patents can be revoked anytime
17. Rule 14: Amendments to specifications — What must amendments be?
A) Unconstrained
B) Supported by original disclosure
C) Oral request
D) Not needed
18. Section 39: Secrecy directions — Who issues secrecy directions?
A) Controller
B) Applicant
C) Bank
D) Inventor
19. Patent Office Guidelines — For computer-related inventions, what must be demonstrated for patentability?
A) Only computer program
B) Technical advancement or economic significance
C) Artistic work
D) No requirement
20. Section 46: Grant and sealing — What happens after fees are paid and no opposition?
A) No patent granted
B) Patent is sealed and granted
C) Revoked immediately
D) No action
Difficult (Q21–Q30)
21. Section 3(d): Exclusion for new forms of known substance — What is required to patent a new form?
A) No data needed
B) Enhanced efficacy over known substances
C) Mere form change
D) No requirement
22. Section 84: Compulsory licensing — One ground for grant is?
A) Excessive pricing
B) Inventor’s preference
C) Unlimited renewals
D) Opponent consent
23. Rule 138: Power to extend time — Is time extension allowed for all acts under the Rules?
A) Yes, for all
B) No, not for filing opposition, examination request, or national phase entry
C) Yes, with extra fee
D) Only for fee payments
24. Section 104A: Burden of proof in process patent infringement — Who must prove the process used?
A) Patent holder
B) Alleged infringer if product identical
C) Controller
D) Law enforcement
25. Section 117A: Appeal — Who can appeal to IPAB (now Commercial Court)?
A) Only Controller
B) Any person aggrieved by Controller’s decision
C) Only patent holder
D) Only government
26. Patent Manual: Unity of Invention — What principle applies?
A) Several inventions per application
B) Single inventive concept per application
C) Multiple claims only
D) No rule
27. Section 122: Failure to supply information — What is the penalty?
A) Only notice
B) Fine or imprisonment, or both
C) Just a warning
D) Patent cancellation
28. Rule 13(7): What must be indicated in specification drawings?
A) Random numbers
B) Reference signs in parentheses
C) No indication
D) Signature
29. Section 142: Power of Controller to correct clerical errors — What can be corrected?
A) No corrections
B) Clerical errors in patents, applications, register
C) Only when ordered by court
D) Only address
30. Patent Guidelines: Prior Art Search — Can patent office use non-patent literature?
A) Yes, including scientific publications
B) Only other patents
C) Never
D) Only books
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