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AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 2


Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.


A person engrossed in writing, surrounded by papers and a warm cup of coffee, creating a cozy and focused workspace.
A person engrossed in writing, surrounded by papers and a warm cup of coffee, creating a cozy and focused workspace.

This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.


Each set includes:

  • 10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)

  • 10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)

  • 10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)


👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.


Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions


Section 2(1)(j) – Definition of Invention

1: Under the Indian Patents Act, 1970, “invention” is defined as:

A) Any idea

B) A new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application

C) Any discovery

D) A business method


Rule 3 – Prescribed Particulars

2: Which document prescribes the particulars required under the relevant provisions of the Act?

A) The Patent Journal

B) Patent Office Manual

C) Prescribed Forms (Second Schedule)

D) Gazette Notification


Section 3 – Non-Patentable Inventions

3: Which of the following is NOT patentable under Section 3?

A) Pharmaceutical process

B) A method of agriculture or horticulture

C) Electrical circuit

D) Novel molecule


Section 8 – Information and Undertaking Regarding Foreign Applications

4: What must an applicant disclose under Section 8 of the Act?

A) Price of the invention

B) Details regarding corresponding foreign applications

C) Invention preferences

D) None of the above


Section 2(1)(m) –Definition of “Patent”

5: What is a “patent” as per the Act?

A) Trademark

B) Certificate of ownership

C) Grant for a new invention by the government

D) Copyright


Rule 10 – Application for Patent

6: What form is used to apply for patent under Patents Rules, 2003?

A) Form 1

B) Form 2

C) Form 3

D) Form 5


Chapter VIII (Sections 43-53) – Grant of Patents

7: Once a patent is granted, the term of the patent is:

A) 5 years

B) 10 years

C) 20 years

D) 25 years


Rule 13 – Filing Specification

8: What must accompany the patent application?

A) Design sketch

B) Specification (provisional or complete)

C) Marketing plan

D) Receipt


Section 7 – Application for Patent

9: Patent applications must be filed by:

A) Inventor(s) alone

B) Assignee(s) alone

C) Either inventor(s) or assignee(s)

D) Corporates only


Patent Office Manual – Priority Date

10: Why is the priority date important?

A) Determines the age of the inventor

B) Establishes the “first to file” criterion for novelty

C) Shows market launch date

D) Sets the valuation


Medium Questions


Section 11A – Publication of Applications

11:An application is published after:

A) 6 months

B) 12 months (from filing date)

C) 18 months

D) 24 months


Rule 24B – Request for Examination

12: Timely request for examination must be made within:

A) 36 months from the priority date

B) 12 months from filing

C) 6 months

D) 60 months


Section 25 – Opposition to Grant

13: When can a post-grant opposition be filed?

A) Any time after grant

B) Within one year of grant

C) Before grant only

D) After the patent expires


Patent Office Manual – Inventive Step

14: Which test is commonly used to assess inventive step?

A) Obvious to a skilled person

B) Market value

C) Inventor’s age

D) Prior publications


Section 28 – Mention of Inventor

15: Who may be mentioned as inventor(s) in a patent application?

A) Any person of choice

B) Only company directors

C) Actual inventors

D) Agents


Section 54 – Patents of Addition

16: Patents of addition are granted for:

A) Major improvements

B) Minor improvements or modifications to an existing invention

C) New trademarks

D) Design variations


Rule 80 – Renewal Fees

17: Renewal of patents is required:

A) Every 5 years

B) Annually

C) Every 10 years

D) Only once


Section 104 – Jurisdiction

18: Patent infringement suits can be filed in:

A) Any police station

B) Only High Court

C) Local authority

D) District Magistrate


Rule 20 – International Application

19: Under the Patents Rules, an international application refers to:

A) WTO application

B) Application under the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT)

C) Local application only

D) EU patent application


Patent Office Manual – Specification Format

20: Patent Office guidelines require claims to be:

A) Abstract only

B) Precise, clear, and supported by the description

C) Written freely

D) In poetic form


Difficult Questions


Section 101 – Powers of Controller

21: The Controller can refuse an assignment of patent if:

A) Terms are not as per Act

B) Inventor objects

C) Application form is missing

D) None of the above


Rule 55A – Submission of Evidence

22: Evidence in opposition proceedings must be submitted:

A) Orally in court

B) By sworn affidavit

C) Via email only

D) No evidence required


Section 24B – Time for Application and Specifications

23: What happens if an application is not examined within prescribed time?

A) Remains pending indefinitely

B) Treated as withdrawn

C) Automatically granted

D) Sent for re-examination


Patent Office Manual – Unity of Invention

24: Lack of unity of invention means:

A) Multiple unrelated inventions in a single application

B) Not enough inventors

C) Priority confusion

D) Missing title


Section 107A – Exhaustion of Rights

25: Parallel imports are allowed under which provision?

A) Section 108

B) Section 107A

C) Section 24

D) Section 54


Rule 129A – Review of Controller’s Decision

26: Review petition must be filed within:

A) 6 months

B) 1 month from order date

C) 1 week

D) No time limit


Section 117A – Appeal to Appellate Board

27: Appeals against the Controller’s decisions can be made to:

A) Supreme Court

B) IPAB (now transferred to High Court)

C) Local office

D) President of India


Patent Office Manual – Disclosure of Best Mode

28: Indian law requires disclosure of best mode in:

A) Trademark applications

B) Patent specifications

C) Copyright registration

D) No requirement


Section 146 – Information to be Furnished by Patentee

29:Patentees must periodically furnish details of:

A) Invention cost

B) Working of patented invention in India

C) Inventor’s background

D) Patent agent


Patent Office Manual – Amendments to Claims

30: Claims in a patent application can be amended:

A) Any time, without restriction

B) Only before grant and as per prescribed procedures

C) Never

D) After grant, without scrutiny


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