AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 21
- Ineurous IP
- Dec 12, 2025
- 6 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
1) Section 2(1)(j) — “Invention” definition
Which of the following best matches the statutory definition of “invention” in India?
A) A new product or process capable of industrial application only, without inventive step
B) A new product or process involving an inventive step but not necessarily industrial application[
C) A new product or process involving an inventive step and capable of industrial application
D) Any idea that is novel to the applicant regardless of public domain disclosures[2]
2) Section 3(k) — Non-patentable subject matter
Which subject matter is expressly excluded from patentability “per se”?
A) Scientific theory per se
B) Computer program per se
C) An article made by mere admixture per se
D) A method of agriculture per se
3) Section 53 — Patent term
The patent term for an ordinary application in India is:
A) 14 years from date of filing
B) 20 years from date of filing
C) 20 years from date of grant
D) 25 years from date of filing
4) Section 6 — Who may apply
Who is entitled to apply for a patent in India?
A) True and first inventor or assignee or legal representative of deceased inventor
B) Only a company incorporated in India
C) Only the first importer into India
D) Only a government department
5) Section 11A — Publication
Ordinarily, a patent application is published after:
A) 6 months from filing
B) 12 months from filing
C) 18 months from the earliest priority date or filing date
D) On grant only
6) Rule 24B (as amended 2024) — RFE timeline
After the 2024 amendments, the deadline to file Request for Examination (RFE) is:
A) 48 months from priority date
B) 31 months from the earliest priority date or filing date
C) 24 months from filing date
D) 36 months from priority date
7) Sections 54–55 — Patent of addition
Which statement about a patent of addition is correct?
A) It always has an independent 20-year term from its filing
B) It cannot be granted if the main patent is refused
C) Its term ends with the main patent’s term
D) It must be filed only before the main patent is granted
8) Section 107A — Bolar exemption
Under the Bolar-type exemption, which act is NOT infringement?
A) Commercial sale of patented product in India
B) Use of patented invention solely for obtaining regulatory approval
C) Export for commercial sale
D) Import for commercial sale
9) Manual — Appropriate office
The “appropriate office” for filing is primarily decided by:
A) Where the applicant’s agent resides only
B) Place of residence/business of applicant or the place of invention’s origin
C) Where the examiner is posted
D) Office chosen at random by the applicant with no rule constraints
10) Rule 131 (as amended 2024) — Working statement
Which form is used to furnish the working statement of patents in India?
A) Form 27
B) Form 3
C) Form 18A
D) Form 4
MEDIUM QUESTIONS
11) Section 31 & Rule 29A (2024) — Grace period
How is the exhibition/public display grace period claimed post-2024 amendments?
A) By filing Form 31 with prescribed fee under newly inserted Rule 29A
B) By simply writing to the Controller without a form
C) Using Form 5 within 12 months
D) Using Form 1 at filing
12) Rule 138 (2024) — Extensions/condonation
Post-2024, the Controller may extend time or condone delay up to:
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months
13) Section 25(1) — Pre-grant opposition
Which is true for pre-grant opposition in India?
A) Only a “person interested” may file
B) Any person may file after publication and before grant
C) It can be filed only within 6 months of publication
D) It is not available in India
14) Section 25(2) — Post-grant opposition
A post-grant opposition must be filed within:
A) 6 months from grant
B) 12 months from the date of publication of grant
C) 24 months from grant
D) 12 months from filing
15) Section 10(4)(d) — Biological material disclosure
What is required when an invention uses biological material?
A) Only deposit number is needed
B) Only Budapest Treaty ID is needed
C) Disclosure of source and geographical origin in the specification
D) No disclosure is needed if imported
16) Manual — Physical vs e-filing fee
What surcharge applies for filing in hard-copy instead of electronically?
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 15%
D) 20%
17) Rule 80(3) (2024) — Renewal fee discount
Under 2024 amendments, when does a 10% reduction in renewal fees apply?
A) If paid exactly on due date by any mode
B) If paid in advance electronically for at least four years
C) If paid by demand draft
D) If paid by IPO challan only
18) Rule 12 (2024) — Form 3 timing
After 2024 changes, when must Form 3 be furnished?
A) Within 6 months of filing
B) Within 3 months from issuance of the first examination report/first statement of objections
C) Within 12 months of priority
D) With RFE only
19) Section 39 — Foreign filing by residents
A resident of India wishes to first file abroad; which is correct?
A) No restriction exists
B) Must obtain prior permission from the Controller
C) Must get permission only after filing abroad
D) Must file a PCT directly without permission
20) Rule 131 (2024) — Working statement frequency and timing
Post-2024, working statements must be filed:
A) Annually within 3 months of financial year end
B) Once every three financial years, within 6 months of the period end
C) Biennially within 12 months of period end
D) Only on Controller’s direction
DIFFICULT QUESTIONS
21) Rule 24C — Expedited examination
Expedited examination of patent applications in India is provided under which rule?
A) Rule 24B
B) Rule 24C
C) Rule 13
D) Rule 20
22) Section 59 — Amendments
Which amendment is prohibited under Section 59?
A) Correcting obvious clerical errors
B) Narrowing a claim based on the original disclosure
C) Introducing matter not fairly based on the original disclosure
D) Deleting an unsupported claim
23) Section 21 — Time for putting in order
What is the consequence if an application is not put in order for grant within the prescribed time?
A) It stands refused by order
B) It is deemed to have been abandoned
C) It continues automatically with extension
D) It is converted to PCT application
24) Rule 55 (2024) — Pre-grant opposition procedure
Which 2024 procedural change applies to pre-grant oppositions?
A) Applicant reply time increased to 4 months
B) Applicant reply time reduced to 2 months; structured orders and hearing request flow introduced
C) Opposition board abolished
D) Only “person interested” may file
25) Section 47 — Government use conditions
Which condition attaches to all patents under Section 47?
A) Government may use the patented invention for its own use and purposes subject to conditions
B) No government use is allowed absent a license
C) Only State Governments may use without consent
D) Government use is allowed only in emergencies
26) Section 85 — Revocation for non-working after CL
When can a patent be revoked under Section 85?
A) Immediately on grant
B) If not worked within one year of filing
C) If reasonable requirements are still not met or invention not worked after two years of compulsory license grant
D) If annuities are paid in advance
27) Manual — Proof of right timing
By when must proof of right (assignment/endorsement) be filed if inventors are not applicants?
A) With Form 1 always
B) Within 6 months from filing in India
C) Only before publication
D) Only before grant hearing
28) Rule 12 (2024) — Controller’s database use and Form 3 direction
Which statement reflects the 2024 update to Rule 12?
A) Controller cannot use external database
B) Controller may use accessible databases and direct fresh Form 3 within two months with reasons recorded
C) Controller must wait for WIPO reports only
D) Controller cannot extend Form 3 filing
29) Rule 131 (2024) — Extension for working statement
What extension may be available for filing a working statement under the amended Rule 131?
A) No extension possible
B) Up to 1 month via Form 3
C) Up to 3 months via Form 4, at Controller’s discretion
D) Up to 6 months via Form 27
30) Section 135 — Convention applications
What is the time limit to file a convention application in India and claim priority?
A) 6 months from first filing
B) 12 months from first filing
C) 18 months from first filing
D) 31 months from first filing
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