AcePAE 2026: Daily Quiz for Indian Patent Agent Examination – Set 14
- Ineurous IP
- Sep 20
- 5 min read
Preparing for the Indian Patent Agent Examination 2026 requires consistent practice and conceptual clarity. To help aspirants strengthen their preparation, our AcePAE Series brings to you a structured 30-question daily quiz.
This quiz is designed to cover Indian Patents Act, 1970, Patents Rules, 2003, and Patent Office Manuals/Guidelines.
Each set includes:
10 Easy Questions (to test your basics)
10 Medium Questions (to practice application-based knowledge)
10 Difficult Questions (to challenge your exam readiness)
👉 Correct answers with detailed explanations are available exclusively on our WhatsApp Channel.
Indian Patents Act, 1970 – Easy Questions
1. Section 2: Definitions
What is the duration of a patent granted under the Indian Patents Act, 1970?
A) 7 years
B) 10 years
C) 20 years
D) 15 years
2. Section 3: Non-Patentable Inventions
Which of the following is NOT patentable in India?
A) A computer program per se
B) Pharmaceuticals
C) Novel mechanical device
D) Agricultural machinery
3. Section 6: Persons Entitled to Apply
Who can file a patent application in India?
A) Only citizens of India
B) Only corporations
C) Any person, whether Indian or foreign
D) Only inventors
4. Section 7: Form of Application
A patent application must:
A) Always be handwritten
B) Be filed in Form 1 at appropriate office
C) Be submitted orally
D) Need not mention the invention
5. Section 11A: Publication of Applications
After what period from the filing date is a patent application ordinarily published?
A) 6 months
B) 12 months
C) 18 months
D) 24 months
6. Section 21: Time for Putting Application in Order
Time allowed to comply with objections in First Examination Report (FER) is:
A) 6 months
B) 3 months
C) 1 year
D) 2 months
7. Section 64: Revocation of Patents
Which is a ground for revocation of a patent?
A) Invention lacked novelty
B) Inventor changed employer
C) Patent fee is increased
D) Patent agent resigned
8. Rule 24: Filing of Request for Examination
Request for examination of a patent must be filed within:
A) 12 months
B) 24 months
C) 48 months
D) 60 months
9. Rule 10: Address for Service
The Patent Office communicates notices primarily by:
A) Verbal instruction
B) Address for service given in the application
C) Newspaper publication
D) Local police delivery
10. Patent Office Manual: Four Patent Offices
Indian Patent Office functions from how many branches?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four
Medium Questions
11. Section 8: Statement and Undertaking
Section 8 requires applicants to:
A) File manufacturing samples
B) Submit information on corresponding foreign patent applications
C) File only Form 1
D) Submit annual reports
12. Section 10: Contents of Specification
Complete specification should not include:
A) Title
B) Detailed description
C) Best method
D) Pricing data
13. Section 11B: Request for Examination
Without RFE, the application will be:
A) Automatically examined
B) Examined after 5 years
C) Deemed withdrawn
D) Also published in gazette
14. Section 25: Opposition to Grant
Pre-grant opposition can be filed:
A) Only after grant
B) By any person
C) By government only
D) By only foreign entities
15. Section 28: Mention of Inventor
Name of inventor is entered:
A) At discretion of Controller
B) Automatically
C) On applicant’s request
D) Not entered
16. Rule 14: Corrections
Corrections in application documents can be made:
A) Any time, with Controller's permission
B) After final grant only
C) After lapse of 10 years
D) Never
17. Section 45: Date of Patent
"Date of Patent" in India refers to:
A) Date of actual grant
B) Date of application filing
C) Date of publication
D) Date of first working
18. Section 56: Validity of Patent
Patent’s validity can be challenged for:
A) Typographical errors
B) Lack of inventive step
C) Delay in prosecution
D) Change of address
19. Manual: Duties of Patent Agent
A patent agent must:
A) Only draft claims
B) Only pay annuities
C) Assist clients and represent before Patent Office
D) Only translate documents
20. Section 84: Compulsory License
Compulsory license may be granted if:
A) Patent owner requests it
B) Reasonable requirements of public are not met
C) Application fee is unpaid
D) Patent owner moves abroad
Difficult Questions
21. Section 39: Foreign Filing Permission
For inventions made in India, before filing abroad, applicant must:
A) File only abroad
B) Seek Controller’s permission
C) File PCT application directly
D) No restriction
22. Section 104A: Burden of Proof in Infringement
Who bears burden of proof on process patent infringement?
A) Defendant
B) Plaintiff
C) Controller
D) Both parties equally
23. Rule 137: Power to Amend
Amendment of documents after grant is possible:
A) Without Controller’s approval
B) Through application under Rule 137
C) Never allowed
D) Only in High Court
24. Section 3(d): Patentability of New Forms
Polymorphs of a known substance are patentable if:
A) No conditions
B) They differ in physical property
C) They show enhanced efficacy
D) All new forms are rejected
25. Manual: Electronic Filing
Electronic filing is:
A) Mandatory for all
B) Allowed for all applicants
C) Not recognized
D) Only for priority claims
26. Section 122: Penalties
Penalty for refusal to supply information to Controller is:
A) Rs. 1,00,000
B) Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine or both
C) Only fine
D) Patent cancellation
27. Rule 138: Power to Extend Time
Controller’s power to extend time:
A) Unlimited
B) Limited to one month unless otherwise provided
C) Not available
D) Can extend at will
28. Section 146: Working of Patents
Submission of working statements (Form 27) is:
A) Not required
B) Annual requirement
C) Required every 3 years
D) Only on request
29. Manual: Territorial Jurisdiction
Filing jurisdiction of patent application depends on:
A) Applicant’s address/workplace
B) Random allotment
C) Controller’s discretion
D) First-come basis
30. Section 153: Power of High Court
In case of appeal, the High Court has:
A) Limited powers
B) Complete power to review Controller’s decision
C) No jurisdiction
D) Only advisory role
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